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Polity — Questions with Solutions

28 solved Polity questions from General Awareness, as asked in SSC CGL and other SSC exams. Read the answer and explanation below, then practise the full set in the practice section.

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Q1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution was amended by the 106th Amendment Act to provide 1/3rd reservation for women?

महिलाओं के लिए 1/3 आरक्षण प्रदान करने के लिए 106वें संशोधन अधिनियम द्वारा भारतीय संविधान के किस अनुच्छेद में संशोधन किया गया था?

  1. A. Article 239AA
  2. B. Article 330A
  3. C. Article 332A
  4. D. All of the above

Solution

The 106th Amendment introduced provisions affecting Articles 239AA, 330A, and 332A for women's reservation.

Q2. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), the crime of 'Sedition' has been replaced by:

भारतीय न्याय संहिता (BNS) के तहत, 'राजद्रोह' (Sedition) के अपराध को किसके द्वारा प्रतिस्थापित किया गया है?

  1. A. Section 150 (Acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India)
  2. B. Section 302
  3. C. Section 377
  4. D. Section 420

Solution

The BNS replaced the colonial-era sedition law with Section 150, penalising acts endangering India's sovereignty, unity, and integrity.

Q3. The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution originally contained how many languages?

भारतीय संविधान की आठवीं अनुसूची में मूल रूप से कितनी भाषाएँ शामिल थीं?

  1. A. 14
  2. B. 18
  3. C. 22
  4. D. 15

Solution

The Eighth Schedule originally recognized 14 languages. Subsequent amendments have increased this number to 22.

Q4. Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits providing of any religious instruction in the educational institutions maintained by the State?

भारतीय संविधान का कौन सा अनुच्छेद राज्य द्वारा अनुरक्षित शैक्षणिक संस्थानों में कोई भी धार्मिक शिक्षा प्रदान करने पर रोक लगाता है?

  1. A. Article 29
  2. B. Article 28
  3. C. Article 30
  4. D. Article 31

Solution

Article 28 of the Constitution states that no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.

Q5. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the Directive Principles of State Policy?

राज्य के नीति निदेशक तत्वों (DPSP) के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन गलत है?

  1. A. They promote welfare of individuals. Hence, they are personal and individualistic.
  2. B. These have moral and political sanctions.
  3. C. They aim at establishing social and economic democracy in the country.
  4. D. They are positive, as they require the State to do certain things.

Solution

DPSP aims at promoting the welfare of the community as a whole, not just personal or individualistic welfare. So statement 1 is incorrect.

Q6. The Indian Constitution has established ______

भारतीय संविधान ने _____ की स्थापना की है।

  1. A. partial judicial system
  2. B. dual judicial system
  3. C. independent judicial system
  4. D. plural judicial system

Solution

The Indian Constitution establishes an integrated and independent judicial system headed by the Supreme Court.

Q7. Which statements about Article 270 are accurate? 1. It regulates tax distribution between the Union and States, covering GST proceeds. 2. Post-101st Amendment, it incorporates Union taxes and GST revenue sharing. 3. GST Compensation Cess distribution falls under Article 270.

अनुच्छेद 270 के बारे में कौन से कथन सटीक हैं? 1. यह संघ और राज्यों के बीच कर वितरण को नियंत्रित करता है, जिसमें GST आय शामिल है। 2. 101वें संशोधन के बाद, यह संघ करों और GST राजस्व साझाकरण को शामिल करता है। 3. GST मुआवजा उपकर वितरण अनुच्छेद 270 के अंतर्गत आता है।

  1. A. 1 and 3 only
  2. B. 1 only
  3. C. 1 and 2 only
  4. D. 2 and 3 only

Solution

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 270 provides for the distribution of net tax proceeds between the Union and States. GST Compensation Cess is distributed based on different rules.

Q8. Schedule VII of the Indian Constitution lists:

भारतीय संविधान की सातवीं अनुसूची (Schedule VII) में क्या सूचीबद्ध है?

  1. A. Election procedures
  2. B. Three legislative lists
  3. C. Emergency provisions
  4. D. Judicial rules

Solution

The Seventh Schedule contains the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List detailing the division of legislative powers.

Q9. Per Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), the total permissible police custody duration, including periodic extensions by a magistrate, is:

भारतीय नागरिक सुरक्षा संहिता (BNSS) के अनुसार, मजिस्ट्रेट द्वारा आवधिक विस्तार सहित, पुलिस हिरासत की कुल अनुमेय अवधि कितनी है?

  1. A. 30 days
  2. B. 60 days
  3. C. 90 days
  4. D. 15 days (initial, extendable)

Solution

Under BNSS, the standard initial maximum aggregate for police custody generally centers around the 15-day limit distributed over a longer period.

Q10. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. 2. He can vote in Rajya Sabha only in case of a tie.

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. भारत के उपराष्ट्रपति राज्यसभा के पदेन सभापति होते हैं। 2. वे राज्यसभा में केवल टाई (बराबर वोट) होने की स्थिति में ही मतदान कर सकते हैं।

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 2 only
  3. C. Both 1 and 2
  4. D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Both statements are correct. The VP chairs the Rajya Sabha and casts a deciding vote only if there is a tie.

Q11. With reference to a Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies whether a bill is a Money Bill. 2. A Money Bill must be passed by both Houses of Parliament to become law. 3. The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill within 14 days. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारतीय संसद में धन विधेयक के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: 1. लोकसभा अध्यक्ष प्रमाणित करता है कि कोई विधेयक धन विधेयक है या नहीं। 2. कानून बनने के लिए धन विधेयक को संसद के दोनों सदनों द्वारा पारित किया जाना चाहिए। 3. राज्यसभा को 14 दिनों के भीतर धन विधेयक वापस करना होता है। उपरोक्त में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?

  1. A. 1 and 2 only
  2. B. 1 and 3 only
  3. C. 2 and 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because Lok Sabha has overriding powers on Money Bills; it does not strictly need Rajya Sabha's passage.

Q12. Consider the following statements: 1. India has a written Constitution. 2. India follows a parliamentary system. Which of the statements is/are correct?

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: 1. भारत का एक लिखित संविधान है। 2. भारत संसदीय प्रणाली का पालन करता है। कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?

  1. A. Only 1
  2. B. Only 2
  3. C. Both 1 and 2
  4. D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Both statements are fundamental facts about the Indian polity.

Q13. Under the Right to Information Act, information must generally be provided within:

सूचना का अधिकार अधिनियम (RTI) के तहत, सामान्यतः कितने दिनों के भीतर सूचना प्रदान की जानी चाहिए?

  1. A. 15 days
  2. B. 30 days
  3. C. 45 days
  4. D. 60 days

Solution

Under the RTI Act 2005, public authorities are required to reply within 30 days.

Q14. Which Fundamental Right ensures equality before law?

कौन सा मौलिक अधिकार कानून के समक्ष समानता सुनिश्चित करता है?

  1. A. Right to Freedom
  2. B. Right to Equality
  3. C. Right to Religion
  4. D. Cultural Rights

Solution

Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees the Right to Equality before the law.

Q15. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. 2. He can vote in Rajya Sabha only in case of a tie.

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. भारत के उपराष्ट्रपति राज्यसभा के पदेन सभापति होते हैं। 2. वे राज्यसभा में केवल टाई (बराबर वोट) होने की स्थिति में ही मतदान कर सकते हैं।

  1. A. 1 only
  2. B. 2 only
  3. C. Both 1 and 2
  4. D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Both statements are correct. The VP chairs the Rajya Sabha and casts a deciding vote only if there is a tie.

Q16. With reference to a Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies whether a bill is a Money Bill. 2. A Money Bill must be passed by both Houses of Parliament to become law. 3. The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill within 14 days. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारतीय संसद में धन विधेयक के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: 1. लोकसभा अध्यक्ष प्रमाणित करता है कि कोई विधेयक धन विधेयक है या नहीं। 2. कानून बनने के लिए धन विधेयक को संसद के दोनों सदनों द्वारा पारित किया जाना चाहिए। 3. राज्यसभा को 14 दिनों के भीतर धन विधेयक वापस करना होता है। उपरोक्त में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?

  1. A. 1 and 2 only
  2. B. 1 and 3 only
  3. C. 2 and 3 only
  4. D. 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because Lok Sabha has overriding powers on Money Bills; it does not strictly need Rajya Sabha's passage.

Q17. Consider the following statements: 1. India has a written Constitution. 2. India follows a parliamentary system. Which of the statements is/are correct?

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: 1. भारत का एक लिखित संविधान है। 2. भारत संसदीय प्रणाली का पालन करता है। कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?

  1. A. Only 1
  2. B. Only 2
  3. C. Both 1 and 2
  4. D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Both statements are fundamental facts about the Indian polity.

Q18. Under the Right to Information Act, information must generally be provided within:

सूचना का अधिकार अधिनियम (RTI) के तहत, सामान्यतः कितने दिनों के भीतर सूचना प्रदान की जानी चाहिए?

  1. A. 15 days
  2. B. 30 days
  3. C. 45 days
  4. D. 60 days

Solution

Under the RTI Act 2005, public authorities are required to reply within 30 days.

Q19. Which Fundamental Right ensures equality before law?

कौन सा मौलिक अधिकार कानून के समक्ष समानता सुनिश्चित करता है?

  1. A. Right to Freedom
  2. B. Right to Equality
  3. C. Right to Religion
  4. D. Cultural Rights

Solution

Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees the Right to Equality before the law.

Q20. Which article has a similar provision to that of Article 32 and deals with writ jurisdiction?

  1. A. Article 227
  2. B. Article 228
  3. C. Article 225
  4. D. Article 226

Solution

Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights, similar to the Supreme Court's power under Article 32.

Q21. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in:

जनहित याचिका (Public Interest Litigation) की अवधारणा की उत्पत्ति कहाँ हुई?

  1. A. Switzerland
  2. B. Iceland
  3. C. USA
  4. D. New Zealand

Solution

The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated in the United States in the mid-1980s to provide legal representation to unrepresented groups.

Q22. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides that the State must secure a social order to promote the welfare of people?

भारतीय संविधान का कौन सा अनुच्छेद यह प्रावधान करता है कि राज्य को लोगों के कल्याण को बढ़ावा देने के लिए एक सामाजिक व्यवस्था सुरक्षित करनी चाहिए?

  1. A. Article 37
  2. B. Article 38
  3. C. Article 39
  4. D. Article 36

Solution

Article 38 of the Directive Principles of State Policy mandates the State to secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people.

Q23. Which of the following is NOT a condition for the President's office in India?

  1. A. He shall not be entitled, without payment of rent, to use his official residence.
  2. B. He shall not be a member of either House of the Parliament.
  3. C. The allowances shall not be diminished during his term of office.
  4. D. He shall not hold any office of profit.

Solution

The President IS entitled to use the official residence (Rashtrapati Bhavan) without payment of rent, making statement 1 incorrect.

Q24. In Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas yojana, the cost of unit assistance is shared between Central and State Governments in the ratio ____ in plain areas.

प्रधानमंत्री ग्रामीण आवास योजना में, मैदानी क्षेत्रों में इकाई सहायता की लागत केंद्र और राज्य सरकारों के बीच ____ के अनुपात में साझा की जाती है।

  1. A. $60:40$
  2. B. $40:60$
  3. C. $90:10$
  4. D. $30:70$

Solution

The cost sharing ratio is 60:40 between the Central and State governments for plain areas.

Q25. Article 77 of the Indian Constitution deals with the:

भारतीय संविधान का अनुच्छेद 77 किससे संबंधित है?

  1. A. term of office of the Vice-President
  2. B. Vice-President of India
  3. C. oath of office by the Vice-President
  4. D. conduct of business of the Government of India

Solution

Article 77 of the Constitution says that all executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.

Q26. The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 deals with subsistence allowance in which of the following Sections?

मुस्लिम महिला (विवाह पर अधिकारों का संरक्षण) अधिनियम, 2019 की कौन सी धारा निर्वाह भत्ता (subsistence allowance) से संबंधित है?

  1. A. Section 5
  2. B. Section 6
  3. C. Section 7
  4. D. Section 4

Solution

Section 5 of this Act provides for the subsistence allowance for a married Muslim woman and her dependent children.

Q27. Which of the following is NOT correct about Directive Principles of State Policy?

  1. A. They ensure social and economic development.
  2. B. They are justiciable in nature.
  3. C. They provide guidelines for the governance of the country.
  4. D. They are morally binding on the government.

Solution

Unlike Fundamental Rights, the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by any court for their violation.

Q28. Which Article of the Constitution explains that the executive power of every state shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union, and the executive power of the union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a state as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose?

  1. A. Article 261
  2. B. Article 247
  3. C. Article 257
  4. D. Article 123

Solution

Article 257 states that the executive power of every State must be exercised in a way that doesn't impede the Union's executive power, and allows the Union to give necessary directions.